Speaking of the batted ball play, sounds like the hinge point is Steelers never gained possession which makes if a 1st down for Packers. I think the flaw in that rule is this was on a change of possession. Just doesn't make any sense. If Steelers don't touch it it's a dead ball right?
I'm going to admit that I haven't read up on the specific rule so I'm kinda talkin' out of my ass here, BUT...
It was a missed FG. It's a change of possession play. I'm pretty sure that there isn't a goddamned thing that Pittsburgh could do that would award possession back
to Green Bay after they miss the fuckin' field goal
. I believe that any penalty incurred by Pittsburgh would be assessed and marked off against Pittsburgh, but they would maintain possession. If they're going to say Pittsburgh never had possession, it would be distance from the spot of the foul (i.e. "batting") or in this case because of where they were on the field, half the distance to the goal...1st and 10 Steelers from the 4.